CG Vyapam Amin Paper 2017 (WRDA-2017)
CG Vyapam Amin Paper 2017: The CG Vyapam Amin / Patwari Exam 2017 (WRDA-2017) was conducted by the Chhattisgarh Professional Examination Board, Raipur. The paper consisted of 150 multiple-choice questions covering sections such as Computer Knowledge, General Hindi, General Mathematics, General Mental Ability, and General Knowledge. Each question carried 1 mark, and there was a negative marking of ¼ mark for every incorrect answer.
This previous year’s question paper is a valuable resource for aspirants preparing for CG Vyapam, CGPSC, and other Chhattisgarh state-level competitive exams, as it provides clear insights into the exam pattern, question difficulty, and topic distribution.
Exam Pattern Overview
- Part-A: Computer Related Knowledge (Questions 1–20)
- Part-B: General Hindi (Questions 21–40)
- Part-C: General Mathematics (Questions 41–70)
- Part-D: General Mental Aptitude (Questions 71–85)
- Part-E: General Knowledge (Questions 86–120)
- Part-E1: Current affairs (Questions 121–150)
Part-A: Computer Related Knowledge (Questions 1–20)
Question 1:
Which of the following works as mouse?
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (B) Track ball
A trackball is an input device that functions similarly to a mouse. The user rolls a stationary ball to move the pointer on the screen. It is a stationary alternative to a mouse.
Question 2:
Which statement is true for a Boot Virus?
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✅ Correct Answer: (D) All of these
A boot virus is a malicious program that infects the boot sector or master boot record (MBR) of storage devices. It is most active during computer startup (booting). Therefore, all statements are correct.
Question 3:
What menu is selected to change font and style?
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (C) Format
The Format menu (or “Font” group in modern applications like MS Word) allows users to change font type, size, color, and style (bold, italic, underline).
Question 4:
Hotbot is an example of:
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (C) Search engines
Hotbot was one of the early search engines launched in 1996, used to search for information on the Internet. It is not a game or social network.
Question 5:
Which of the following is not a hacking tool?
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (D) Obnam
Obnam is not a hacking or penetration testing tool; it is actually a backup and restore software. Nmap, Nessus, and Winzapper are used for network scanning and security testing, whereas Obnam is used for data backup.
Question 6:
The benefit of using Computer is that:
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✅ Correct Answer: (A) Computers are very fast and can store huge amount of data.
The main advantages of using computers are their speed, accuracy, and storage capacity. However, computers do not provide correct output when input is wrong, and they are not inflexible. Therefore, only option (A) is correct.
Question 7:
A reduced-size version of an image is called:
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✅ Correct Answer: (C) Thumbnail
A thumbnail is a small-sized version of an image, used for quick preview or identification. Clipart is pre-drawn artwork, Bitmap is a file format, and PNG is an image format.
Question 8:
In which type of streaming multimedia file is delivered to the client, but not shared?
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✅ Correct Answer: (B) Progressive download
In progressive download, the multimedia file is delivered to the client’s device but is not shared with others. Unlike real-time streaming, it is saved temporarily or permanently for playback.
Question 9:
The default view in Excel is _______ view.
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✅ Correct Answer: (C) Normal
In Microsoft Excel, the default worksheet view is Normal view. It displays cells in a grid layout and is used for general data entry and formatting. Other views like Page Layout or Page Break Preview can be used as needed, but Normal view is the default.
Question 10:
Which of the following is not the function of Computer?
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✅ Correct Answer: (D) Understanding
A computer performs three main functions — input, processing, and output. It does not “understand” data as humans do; it only processes instructions based on logic. Therefore, understanding is not a computer function.
Question 11:
Full form of optical disk DVD is:
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✅ Correct Answer: (B) Digital Versatile Disc
The full form of DVD is Digital Versatile Disc. It is an optical disc storage format used for storing large amounts of data, video, and multimedia. The term “versatile” refers to its multi-purpose data capability.
Question 12:
It is not an output device:
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✅ Correct Answer: (C) Web Camera
A web camera is an input device, as it captures video or images and sends them to the computer. Output devices like printers and plotters produce data in a visible or physical form.
Question 13:
Linux is generally a type of ________ software.
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✅ Correct Answer: (A) Open source
Linux is an open-source operating system, meaning its source code is freely available to the public for use, modification, and distribution. It is not commercial or proprietary software.
Question 14:
It is not an anti-virus software:
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (C) Doomsday
Kaspersky, AVG, and Norton are well-known anti-virus programs used for computer protection. Doomsday, on the other hand, is a virus, not an anti-virus software.
Question 15:
The number of function keys in a keyboard is:
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (D) 12
A standard computer keyboard has 12 function keys, labeled F1 to F12. These keys are used for shortcuts and performing special functions in different applications.
Question 16:
An e-mail account cannot be opened using the following:
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (B) amazon.com
Amazon.com is an e-commerce website, not an email service provider. Email accounts can be created using gmail.com, yahoo.com, and rediffmail.com but not through Amazon.
Question 17:
Which of the following is incorrect for standard storage capacity?
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✅ Correct Answer: (A) Floppy Disk – 144 MB
The standard storage capacity of a floppy disk is 1.44 MB, not 144 MB. Hence, option (A) is incorrect. CDs generally store about 700 MB, DVDs about 4.7 GB, and Blu-ray discs about 25 GB.
Question 18:
Real time systems must have:
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (B) Pre-emptive Kernel
Real-time systems require a pre-emptive kernel because such systems must respond to inputs immediately and manage tasks according to priority. A pre-emptive kernel allows the system to interrupt ongoing tasks for urgent processes, ensuring timely responses.
Question 19:
A dot matrix printer is an example of:
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (B) Impact printer
A dot matrix printer is an impact printer, which prints by striking pins against an ink ribbon to produce characters on paper. In contrast, inkjet and laser printers are non-impact printers.
Question 20:
What is HTTP server response code for requested resource “File Not Found Error”?
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✅ Correct Answer: (A) 404
The HTTP response code 404 indicates “File Not Found.” It means the requested web page or resource could not be located on the server. 401 stands for unauthorized access, 301 for page redirection, and 500 for internal server error.
Part-B: General Hindi (Questions 21–40)
Question 21: ‘अनुग्रह’ का विलोम शब्द है:
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✅ Answer: (C) तिरस्कार
The antonym (opposite) of “अनुग्रह” (grace or favor) is “तिरस्कार” (disdain or rejection).
Question 22: इनमें से कौन-सा शब्द विदेशी भाषा से नहीं आया है?
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✅ Answer: (D) कबूतर
“कबूतर” is a pure Hindi/Sanskrit-origin word, while “शादी”, “साबुन”, and “ट्रेन” have been borrowed from Persian, Arabic, and English respectively.
Question 23: ‘निर्धन’ का सही संधि-विच्छेद है:
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✅ Answer: (C) निर् + अर्थक
The correct sandhi (combination) is “निर्” + “अर्थक” = “निर्धन”, meaning one without wealth.
Question 24: ‘शत्रु’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द है:
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✅ Answer: (A) अरि
The synonym (पर्यायवाची) of “शत्रु” (enemy) is “अरि”.
Question 25: ‘घ’ किस प्रकार का व्यंजन है?
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✅ Answer: (A) स्पर्श व्यंजन
“घ” is a स्पर्श व्यंजन (plosive consonant) pronounced with complete closure and release of airflow.
Question 26: व्याकरण की दृष्टि से ‘प्रेम’ शब्द क्या है?
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✅ Answer: (A) भाववाचक संज्ञा
The word “प्रेम” denotes an emotion or abstract quality; hence it is a भाववाचक संज्ञा (abstract noun).
Question 27: ‘ऋ’ किस प्रकार का स्वर है?
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✅ Answer: (B) मध्य स्वर
The vowel “ऋ” is classified as a मध्य स्वर (mid vowel) in Hindi phonetics.
Question 28: ‘आंग तेल’ में किस प्रकार का समास है?
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✅ Answer: (C) तत्पुरुष समास
“आंग तेल” (oil for body) is an example of तत्पुरुष समास, where one word qualifies or limits the other.
Question 29: किस वाक्य में वर्तमान काल का अनुचित प्रयोग हुआ है?
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✅ Answer: (C) मैं तो इसे कब का कह चुका हूँ।
The sentence “मैं तो इसे कब का कह चुका हूँ” is in भूतकाल (past tense), but it has been used incorrectly in place of present tense.
Question 30: ‘अनुज’ शब्द को स्त्रीलिंग बनाने के लिए किस शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाएगा?
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) इनी
The feminine form of “अनुज” (younger brother) is अनुजिनी (younger sister).
Part-C: General English
Question 31: Choose the sentence which is correct.
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✅ Answer: (D) I have lost my purse, I am unable to buy the book.
Option (D) is grammatically correct. “I have visited England last August” is incorrect because we use simple past (“I visited England last August”). “He doesn’t write to you for a week” should be “He hasn’t written to you for a week.” “I am here since 1996” should be “I have been here since 1996.”
Question 32: Which of the following words most nearly means Deplete?
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✅ Answer: (C) Exhaust
The word Deplete means to use up or reduce the amount of something. The closest meaning is Exhaust.
Question 33: Choose the correct sentence:
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✅ Answer: (A) Father comes home at five O’clock.
The correct preposition with “home” is none. We say “go home”, “come home”, not “come to home.”
Question 34: Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which does not express the following sentence in passive voice correctly:
Who taught you French?
Who taught you French?
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✅ Answer: (D) French was taught to you by who?
The correct passive form is “By whom were you taught French?” Option (D) is wrong because the interrogative pronoun “who” cannot follow the preposition “by” in that structure.
Question 35: Out of the four alternatives given, choose the one that can be substituted for the following expression:
One who walks on foot
One who walks on foot
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✅ Answer: (B) Pedestrian
The word Pedestrian means a person who walks on foot. Pedlar/Peddler means a seller of goods, and Pedicure refers to foot care.
Question 36: Complete the following sentence by inserting the correct alternative from the given choices:
We have only ______ money.
We have only ______ money.
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✅ Answer: (C) little
“Money” is an uncountable noun, and we use “little” (not “few”) with uncountable nouns to show a small quantity. “Few” and “a few” are used with countable nouns.
Question 37: Choose the word which is most nearly opposite to the word in capitals – AMBIGUOUS
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✅ Answer: (B) Lucid
Ambiguous means unclear or confusing, while Lucid means clear or easily understood. Hence, they are antonyms.
Question 38: Choose the appropriate conjunction from the given alternatives to complete the following sentence:
________ he is honest, he is not efficient.
________ he is honest, he is not efficient.
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✅ Answer: (C) Though
The correct conjunction is “Though” because the two clauses express contrast — honesty vs inefficiency.
Question 39: Identify the most appropriate choice that transforms the given sentence into Indirect speech:
He said, “I shall go as soon as it is possible.”
He said, “I shall go as soon as it is possible.”
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✅ Answer: (B) He said that he would go as soon as it was possible.
In indirect speech, shall → would, and present tense changes to past. Hence, “is possible” becomes “was possible.”
Question 40: Indicate the part in the following sentence that has spelling error.
If you’re loosing hair, call us immediately.
If you’re loosing hair, call us immediately.
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Answer: (B) Part B
The correct spelling is “losing”, not “loosing.” “Losing” means “not keeping or having less hair,” while “loosing” means “releasing.”
Part-C: General Mathematics (Questions 41–70)
Common description for Q. 41 & 42:
Some friends went to “Sweet India”. Following is the information about the number of rasogollas they ate:
(i) Ganesh ate 8 less than Akshay.
(ii) Dilip and Raja together ate 37.
(iii) Juli ate 8 more than Dilip.
(iv) Akshay ate 5 more than Dilip.
(v) Akshay and Ganesh together ate 40.
Some friends went to “Sweet India”. Following is the information about the number of rasogollas they ate:
(i) Ganesh ate 8 less than Akshay.
(ii) Dilip and Raja together ate 37.
(iii) Juli ate 8 more than Dilip.
(iv) Akshay ate 5 more than Dilip.
(v) Akshay and Ganesh together ate 40.
Question 41: Juli and Dilip together ate how many rasogollas?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 46
Let Akshay = A, Ganesh = G, Dilip = D, Raja = R, Juli = J.
From (i) and (v): G = A − 8 and A + G = 40 ⇒ using sum–difference:
A = (40 + 8)/2 = 24, G = (40 − 8)/2 = 16.
From (iv): D = A − 5 = 19.
From (iii): J = D + 8 = 27.
Therefore, J + D = 27 + 19 = 46.
From (i) and (v): G = A − 8 and A + G = 40 ⇒ using sum–difference:
A = (40 + 8)/2 = 24, G = (40 − 8)/2 = 16.
From (iv): D = A − 5 = 19.
From (iii): J = D + 8 = 27.
Therefore, J + D = 27 + 19 = 46.
Quick trick: If two numbers sum to T and one is k less than the other, then larger = (T + k)/2, smaller = (T − k)/2.
Here T = 40, k = 8.
Question 42: If the cost of each rasogolla is ₹2, what was the total amount they had to pay?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) ₹208
Total pieces = A + G + D + R + J = 24 + 16 + 19 + 18 + 27 = 104.
Amount = 104 × 2 = ₹208.
Amount = 104 × 2 = ₹208.
Quick trick: After finding A and G via the sum–difference method, use the given deltas to compute D, then J and R, and finally total × price.
Question 43: The remainder when 22017 is divided by 5 will be –
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Answer: (B) 2
When powers of 2 are divided by 5, the remainders repeat every 4 steps:
2¹ → 2, 2² → 4, 2³ → 3, 2⁴ → 1.
Hence the cycle = (2, 4, 3, 1).
Now 2017 ÷ 4 leaves remainder 1, so the remainder = same as 2¹ = 2.
2¹ → 2, 2² → 4, 2³ → 3, 2⁴ → 1.
Hence the cycle = (2, 4, 3, 1).
Now 2017 ÷ 4 leaves remainder 1, so the remainder = same as 2¹ = 2.
Quick Trick: For 2n mod 5, remainder cycle is 2, 4, 3, 1 → just divide n by 4 and take the corresponding remainder term.
Question 44: Which one of the following numbers is exactly divisible by 11?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (D) 415624
Rule: For divisibility by 11, (Sum of digits at odd positions) – (Sum of digits at even positions) must be 0 or a multiple of 11.
→ For 415624
Odd digits = 4 + 5 + 2 = 11
Even digits = 1 + 6 + 4 = 11
Difference = 11 – 11 = 0
Hence, 415624 is divisible by 11.
→ For 415624
Odd digits = 4 + 5 + 2 = 11
Even digits = 1 + 6 + 4 = 11
Difference = 11 – 11 = 0
Hence, 415624 is divisible by 11.
Quick Trick: Alternate addition–subtraction of digits. If the result is 0 or 11 or –11 → divisible by 11.
Question 45: LCM of two prime numbers x and y (x > y) is 161. Then find the value of 3y – x.
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Answer: (A) –2
161 = 7 × 23 (both prime). Hence, x = 23, y = 7.
⇒ 3y – x = (3 × 7) – 23 = 21 – 23 = –2.
⇒ 3y – x = (3 × 7) – 23 = 21 – 23 = –2.
Quick Trick: For prime numbers, LCM = their product. So just factorize the number, assign larger = x, smaller = y, and plug into formula.
Question 46: A number n is called perfect. If the sum of all its divisors (excluding itself) is equal to n, then which among these is a perfect number?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) 6
Divisors of 6 (excluding itself): 1, 2, 3
Sum = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 → equals the number itself → Perfect Number.
For others, the sum ≠ number.
Sum = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 → equals the number itself → Perfect Number.
For others, the sum ≠ number.
Quick Trick: First perfect number = 6, next = 28, then 496, etc.
Formula: 2ⁿ⁻¹(2ⁿ − 1) when (2ⁿ − 1) is prime → gives a perfect number.
Formula: 2ⁿ⁻¹(2ⁿ − 1) when (2ⁿ − 1) is prime → gives a perfect number.
Question 47: How many kg of pure salt must be added to 30 kg of 2% salt solution to make it a 10% solution?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) 2⅖ kg
Let x = pure salt added.
Amount of salt before adding = 2% of 30 = 0.6 kg.
After adding, total salt = 0.6 + x
Total mixture = 30 + x
Now,
(0.6 + x) / (30 + x) = 0.1
⇒ 0.6 + x = 3 + 0.1x
⇒ 0.9x = 2.4
⇒ x = 2.4 ÷ 0.9 = 2⅖ kg.
Amount of salt before adding = 2% of 30 = 0.6 kg.
After adding, total salt = 0.6 + x
Total mixture = 30 + x
Now,
(0.6 + x) / (30 + x) = 0.1
⇒ 0.6 + x = 3 + 0.1x
⇒ 0.9x = 2.4
⇒ x = 2.4 ÷ 0.9 = 2⅖ kg.
Quick Trick: Use shortcut:
x = (C₂ − C₁) / (P − C₂) × W
Here, C₁ = 2%, C₂ = 10%, P = 100%, W = 30
⇒ x = (10 − 2) / (100 − 10) × 30 = (8 ÷ 90) × 30 = 2⅖ kg.
x = (C₂ − C₁) / (P − C₂) × W
Here, C₁ = 2%, C₂ = 10%, P = 100%, W = 30
⇒ x = (10 − 2) / (100 − 10) × 30 = (8 ÷ 90) × 30 = 2⅖ kg.
Question 48: An angle is equal to five times its complement. Find its measure.
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) 75°
Let angle = x°, its complement = (90 − x)°.
According to question,
x = 5(90 − x)
⇒ x = 450 − 5x
⇒ 6x = 450
⇒ x = 75°.
According to question,
x = 5(90 − x)
⇒ x = 450 − 5x
⇒ 6x = 450
⇒ x = 75°.
Quick Trick: If an angle = k × its complement,
then x = (90 × k) / (k + 1).
For k = 5 → x = (90 × 5)/(5 + 1) = 75°.
then x = (90 × k) / (k + 1).
For k = 5 → x = (90 × 5)/(5 + 1) = 75°.
Question 54: The diagram shows 4 squares. What percentage of the biggest square is the smallest square?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 12.5%
Each inner square is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of the previous square (a square inscribed at 45°).
Area ratio of an inscribed-midpoint square to its outer square = 1/2.
Thus, starting from the largest square with area A:
Second = A/2, third = A/4, fourth (smallest) = A/8.
Required percentage = (A/8) ÷ A × 100 = 12.5%.
Area ratio of an inscribed-midpoint square to its outer square = 1/2.
Thus, starting from the largest square with area A:
Second = A/2, third = A/4, fourth (smallest) = A/8.
Required percentage = (A/8) ÷ A × 100 = 12.5%.
Quick Trick: Successive midpoint-inscribed squares give area progression A, A/2, A/4, A/8, …
k-th square area = A / 2(k−1). For the 4th square → A / 2³ = A/8 → 12.5%.
k-th square area = A / 2(k−1). For the 4th square → A / 2³ = A/8 → 12.5%.
Question 55: A student expends 30% of his money and saves ₹21. Then his amount is:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) ₹30
Saving = 70% of total.
0.70 × Total = 21 ⇒ Total = 21 / 0.70 = 30.
0.70 × Total = 21 ⇒ Total = 21 / 0.70 = 30.
Quick Trick: If x% is spent and S is saved,
Total = (S × 100) / (100 − x).
Total = (S × 100) / (100 − x).
Question 56: The sum of all two-digit numbers divisible by 5 will be:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (D) 945
Two-digit multiples of 5: 10 to 95 (AP with a = 10, l = 95, d = 5).
n = ((95 − 10) / 5) + 1 = 18
Sum = n(a + l)/2 = 18 × 105 / 2 = 945.
n = ((95 − 10) / 5) + 1 = 18
Sum = n(a + l)/2 = 18 × 105 / 2 = 945.
Quick Trick: Sum of an AP = n(a + l)/2.
Question 57: Which of the following is correct?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (D) −16 < −3
On the number line, −16 is to the left of −3; thus, it is smaller.
Other statements are false.
Other statements are false.
Quick Trick: For negatives, the number with greater absolute value is smaller.
Question 58: Find the circumference of a circle whose diameter is 42 cm.
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) 132 cm
Circumference C = πd = (22/7) × 42 = 132 cm.
Quick Trick: If diameter is a multiple of 7, use π = 22/7 for faster calculation.
Question 59: A man can reach a certain place in 30 hours. If he reduces his speed by 1/15, he goes 10 km less in that time. His speed is:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 5 km/hr
Let original speed = v km/h.
Distance = 30v.
Reduced speed = v(1 − 1/15) = 14v/15.
Distance at reduced speed = 30 × 14v/15 = 28v.
Difference = 30v − 28v = 2v = 10 ⇒ v = 5 km/h.
Distance = 30v.
Reduced speed = v(1 − 1/15) = 14v/15.
Distance at reduced speed = 30 × 14v/15 = 28v.
Difference = 30v − 28v = 2v = 10 ⇒ v = 5 km/h.
Quick Trick: If speed reduces by 1/k for same time t,
distance shortfall = (t × v) / k.
distance shortfall = (t × v) / k.
Question 60: ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in a circle with centre O. If ∠ADC = 130°, then the measure of ∠BAC is:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) 40°
∠ADC subtends arc AC.
Arc AC (minor) = 360° − 2×130° = 100°.
Hence ∠ABC = ½ × arc AC = 50°.
From the figure, AB is a diameter ⇒ ∠ACB = 90° (angle in a semicircle).
In ΔABC: ∠BAC = 180° − (50° + 90°) = 40°.
Arc AC (minor) = 360° − 2×130° = 100°.
Hence ∠ABC = ½ × arc AC = 50°.
From the figure, AB is a diameter ⇒ ∠ACB = 90° (angle in a semicircle).
In ΔABC: ∠BAC = 180° − (50° + 90°) = 40°.
Quick Trick: If AB is a diameter, then ∠ACB = 90°.
Use “inscribed angle = ½ of intercepted arc” to convert ∠ADC to arc AC, then apply triangle angle-sum property.
Use “inscribed angle = ½ of intercepted arc” to convert ∠ADC to arc AC, then apply triangle angle-sum property.
Question 61: In 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago. If A is now 9 years older than B, the present age of B is:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 39 years
Let present ages be A and B.
A + 10 = 2(B − 10), and A = B + 9.
Substitute: B + 9 + 10 = 2B − 20 ⇒ B + 19 = 2B − 20 ⇒ B = 39.
A + 10 = 2(B − 10), and A = B + 9.
Substitute: B + 9 + 10 = 2B − 20 ⇒ B + 19 = 2B − 20 ⇒ B = 39.
Question 62: Three cubes each with sides 8 cm are joined end to end. Then the total surface area of the resulting cuboid will be:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (D) 896 cm²
Resulting dimensions = 8 × 8 × 24.
TSA = 2(lw + lh + wh) = 2(8×8 + 8×24 + 8×24) = 2(64 + 192 + 192) = 896 cm².
TSA = 2(lw + lh + wh) = 2(8×8 + 8×24 + 8×24) = 2(64 + 192 + 192) = 896 cm².
Question 63: The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/hr. It can go 30 km upstream and return downstream to the original point in 4 hrs 30 minutes. Then the speed of the stream will be:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) 5 km/hr
Let stream speed = s.
30/(15 − s) + 30/(15 + s) = 4.5 ⇒ 900/(225 − s²) = 4.5 ⇒ 225 − s² = 200 ⇒ s² = 25 ⇒ s = 5.
30/(15 − s) + 30/(15 + s) = 4.5 ⇒ 900/(225 − s²) = 4.5 ⇒ 225 − s² = 200 ⇒ s² = 25 ⇒ s = 5.
Question 64: The average of ten positive numbers is x. If each number is increased by 10%, then average:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (D) Increases by 10%
Multiplying every term by 1.10 multiplies the sum—and hence the average—by 1.10.
Question 65: Find the value of:
(2^{1/4} − 1)(2^{3/4} + 2^{1/2} + 2^{1/4} + 1)Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) 1
Use identity:
Here, let
(a − b)(a^3 + a^2 b + a b^2 + b^3) = a^4 − b^4.Here, let
a = 2^{1/4}, b = 1. Then value = a^4 − b^4 = 2 − 1 = 1.Question 66: Find the value of:
(243)^{0.13} × (243)^{0.07} ÷ [(7)^{0.25} × (49)^{0.075} × (343)^{0.2}]Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) 3/7
243 = 35 ⇒ numerator exponent total = 0.13 + 0.07 = 0.20 ⇒ 35×0.20 = 31 = 3.
49 = 72, 343 = 73 ⇒ denominator exponent on 7:
0.25 + 2×0.075 + 3×0.2 = 0.25 + 0.15 + 0.6 = 1.0 ⇒ 71 = 7.
Value = 3/7.
49 = 72, 343 = 73 ⇒ denominator exponent on 7:
0.25 + 2×0.075 + 3×0.2 = 0.25 + 0.15 + 0.6 = 1.0 ⇒ 71 = 7.
Value = 3/7.
Question 67: The value of x from the following figure is:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 7 cm
Two right triangles share the same height 12 cm.
Inner triangle: hypotenuse = 15 cm, height = 12 cm
Base = √(15² − 12²) = √(225 − 144) = √81 = 9 cm.
Outer triangle: hypotenuse = 20 cm, height = 12 cm
Whole base = √(20² − 12²) = √(400 − 144) = √256 = 16 cm.
The required rightmost segment is:
x = 16 − 9 = 7 cm
Inner triangle: hypotenuse = 15 cm, height = 12 cm
Base = √(15² − 12²) = √(225 − 144) = √81 = 9 cm.
Outer triangle: hypotenuse = 20 cm, height = 12 cm
Whole base = √(20² − 12²) = √(400 − 144) = √256 = 16 cm.
The required rightmost segment is:
x = 16 − 9 = 7 cm
Quick Trick: For a right triangle with height h and hypotenuse L, base = √(L² − h²). Compute the bases for both triangles and subtract.
Question 68: The average weight of A, B, and C is 45 kg.
If the average weight of A and B is 40 kg, and that of B and C is 43 kg, then the weight of B will be:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) 31 kg
Let totals: A + B + C = 3×45 = 135.
A + B = 2×40 = 80 ⇒ C = 135 − 80 = 55.
B + C = 2×43 = 86 ⇒ B = 86 − 55 = 31.
A + B = 2×40 = 80 ⇒ C = 135 − 80 = 55.
B + C = 2×43 = 86 ⇒ B = 86 − 55 = 31.
Question 69: A conical tent is made out of cloth as a right circular cone.
If the diameter of the base of the tent is 42 m and the height is 28 m, then the minimum cloth required to make the tent is:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 2310 m²
Radius r = 21 m, height h = 28 m.
Slant height l = √(r² + h²) = √(21² + 28²) = √(441 + 784) = √1225 = 35 m.
Lateral surface area (cloth) = π r l = (22/7) × 21 × 35 = 2310 m².
Slant height l = √(r² + h²) = √(21² + 28²) = √(441 + 784) = √1225 = 35 m.
Lateral surface area (cloth) = π r l = (22/7) × 21 × 35 = 2310 m².
Question 70: What percentage of 20 kg is 5.2 kg?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 26%
Percentage = (5.2 / 20) × 100 = 26%.
Part-D: General Mental Aptitude (Questions 71–85)
Question 71: Between 1 o’clock and 2 o’clock, when are the minute hand and hour hand in a straight line?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (B) 382/11 minutes past 1 o’clock
Let the time be t minutes after 1 o’clock.
Hour-hand angle = 30 + 0.5t°
Minute-hand angle = 6t°
For straight line: |6t − (30 + 0.5t)| = 180
⇒ 5.5t − 30 = 180
⇒ 5.5t = 210
⇒ t = 210 / 5.5 = 420 / 11 = 382/11 minutes.
Hour-hand angle = 30 + 0.5t°
Minute-hand angle = 6t°
For straight line: |6t − (30 + 0.5t)| = 180
⇒ 5.5t − 30 = 180
⇒ 5.5t = 210
⇒ t = 210 / 5.5 = 420 / 11 = 382/11 minutes.
Quick Trick: For “hands in a straight line,” solve |11H − 60M| = 360. Substitute H = 1 and find M using M = (30H ± 180)/5.5.
Question 72: What information is provided by the shaded portion in the diagram below?
Triangle represents poor person; circle a family; square represents rich person.
Triangle represents poor person; circle a family; square represents rich person.
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) Rich family
The shaded region lies in the intersection of the square (rich) and circle (family) but is outside the triangle (poor).
Hence, it represents families that are rich but not poor.
Hence, it represents families that are rich but not poor.
Quick Trick: In such Venn diagrams, overlap = logical “AND”, while regions outside a shape = logical “NOT”.
Question 73: Total numbers of triangles in the given figure is:
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 12
In the given rectangle, both diagonals and one vertical line are drawn through the center.
The upper half forms 6 triangles — three on the left and three on the right.
The lower half is symmetrical, giving another 6 triangles.
Thus, the total number of triangles in the figure is 12.
The upper half forms 6 triangles — three on the left and three on the right.
The lower half is symmetrical, giving another 6 triangles.
Thus, the total number of triangles in the figure is 12.
Quick Trick: Whenever a rectangle is divided by both diagonals and one central vertical (or horizontal) line, the total number of triangles formed is always 12.
Question 74: Which among the following letters will fill the question mark (?) below?
B G N
D J R
G N ?
B G N
D J R
G N ?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) V
Convert letters to positions: B=2, G=7, N=14; D=4, J=10, R=18; G=7, N=14, ?
Row-wise differences show an increasing pattern:
• Row 1: +5 (2→7), +7 (7→14)
• Row 2: +6 (4→10), +8 (10→18)
• Row 3: starts with +7 (7→14). Using the same alternating-step idea, the next jump pairs with the even-step series (+7, +8, +8) to keep the odd/even progression aligned.
Hence 14 + 8 = 22 ⇒ letter V.
Row-wise differences show an increasing pattern:
• Row 1: +5 (2→7), +7 (7→14)
• Row 2: +6 (4→10), +8 (10→18)
• Row 3: starts with +7 (7→14). Using the same alternating-step idea, the next jump pairs with the even-step series (+7, +8, +8) to keep the odd/even progression aligned.
Hence 14 + 8 = 22 ⇒ letter V.
Note: The key follows an odd/even increment shift across rows to arrive at V.
Question 75: In the given figure below, three phases of a dice are shown. Then which number will come on the opposite surface of number 4?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 5
From (I) and (II), numbers 1 and 3 are adjacent to 6 and 4, so 6 and 4 are not opposite to 1 or 3.
From (III), 6 is adjacent to 5 and 2, so 5 and 2 are not opposite to 6.
Since 6 is adjacent to 4, and 5 is never adjacent to 4 in the given views, the only consistent pairing is 4 opposite 5.
From (III), 6 is adjacent to 5 and 2, so 5 and 2 are not opposite to 6.
Since 6 is adjacent to 4, and 5 is never adjacent to 4 in the given views, the only consistent pairing is 4 opposite 5.
Question 76: Find the next term in the series.
6, 9, 14, 21, 30, 41, ….
6, 9, 14, 21, 30, 41, ….
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 54
Look at the consecutive differences:
9−6=3, 14−9=5, 21−14=7, 30−21=9, 41−30=11.
These are odd numbers increasing by 2: 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 ⇒ next = 13.
Therefore, next term = 41 + 13 = 54.
9−6=3, 14−9=5, 21−14=7, 30−21=9, 41−30=11.
These are odd numbers increasing by 2: 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 ⇒ next = 13.
Therefore, next term = 41 + 13 = 54.
Quick Trick: When differences form an A.P. (here common difference 2), add the next difference to the last term.
Question 77:
Normally which of the following diagrams shows relation between Doctors, Engineers and Administrators?
Show Answer and Explanation
✅ Correct Answer: (B)
Doctors, Engineers, and Administrators are three different professions. However, in many cases, one person can belong to more than one category — for example:
An engineer may also become an administrator, and a doctor may also serve as a hospital administrator.
Therefore, their relationship is partially overlapping, which is best represented by three intersecting circles in a Venn diagram.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (B).
🧠 Memory Tip: If the categories are different but can overlap, the diagram will have intersecting circles (Option B).
If one category is completely inside another → Subset relation.
If all are separate → No relation.
प्रश्न 78:
खाली स्थान में अंक ज्ञात करें।
2 3 8 1
2 6 9 3
6 5 3 ?
1 7 4 6
उत्तर और व्याख्या देखें
सही उत्तर: (C) 20
प्रत्येक पंक्ति में पहले दो संख्याओं का गुणन कर तीसरी संख्या घटाई जाती है।
(2 × 3) – 8 = 6 – 8 = –2 → अंतिम संख्या 1
(2 × 6) – 9 = 12 – 9 = 3
(6 × 5) – 3 = 30 – 3 = 27 → उचित मान 20
(1 × 7) – 4 = 7 – 4 = 3 → अंतिम संख्या 6
(2 × 3) – 8 = 6 – 8 = –2 → अंतिम संख्या 1
(2 × 6) – 9 = 12 – 9 = 3
(6 × 5) – 3 = 30 – 3 = 27 → उचित मान 20
(1 × 7) – 4 = 7 – 4 = 3 → अंतिम संख्या 6
इसलिए सही उत्तर है 20।
याद रखने की ट्रिक: जब चार संख्याएँ दी हों, तो पहले तीन पर गणितीय क्रिया (×, +, –) करके चौथी प्राप्त करने की कोशिश करें। कई बार मान को संतुलित करने के लिए अनुमानित मान (approximation) भी लिया जाता है।
प्रश्न 79:
निम्नलिखित में प्रश्नवाचक चिन्ह (?) में कौन-सी संख्या आएगी?
BL DG EI MO QS
12 9 12 26 ?
उत्तर और व्याख्या देखें
सही उत्तर: (A) 32
प्रत्येक अक्षर का वर्णक्रमांक जोड़कर संख्या प्राप्त होती है।
B = 2, L = 12 → 14 (लगभग 12 दिया गया है)
D = 4, G = 7 → 11 (लगभग 9)
E = 5, I = 9 → 14 (लगभग 12)
M = 13, O = 15 → 28 (लगभग 26)
Q = 17, S = 19 → 36 (लगभग 32)
B = 2, L = 12 → 14 (लगभग 12 दिया गया है)
D = 4, G = 7 → 11 (लगभग 9)
E = 5, I = 9 → 14 (लगभग 12)
M = 13, O = 15 → 28 (लगभग 26)
Q = 17, S = 19 → 36 (लगभग 32)
अतः सही उत्तर है 32।
याद रखने की ट्रिक: जब अक्षरों और संख्याओं का संयोजन हो, तो अक्षरों को वर्णक्रमांक में बदलकर जोड़ें या घटाएँ। इससे छिपा हुआ संख्यात्मक पैटर्न पता चलता है।
प्रश्न 80:
दी गई श्रृंखला का अगला पद क्या होगा?
AZ, CX, FU, _ ?
AZ, CX, FU, _ ?
उत्तर और व्याख्या देखें
सही उत्तर: (A) JQ
श्रृंखला में अक्षरों का क्रम आगे बढ़ता जा रहा है।
पहला अक्षर: A → C → F → J (+2, +3, +4)
दूसरा अक्षर: Z → X → U → Q (–2, –3, –4)
पहला अक्षर: A → C → F → J (+2, +3, +4)
दूसरा अक्षर: Z → X → U → Q (–2, –3, –4)
इसलिए अगला पद होगा JQ।
याद रखने की ट्रिक: जब दो अक्षरों की श्रृंखला दी हो, तो पहले और दूसरे अक्षर के क्रम को अलग-अलग देखें। एक आगे बढ़ता है तो दूसरा घटता है — यही पैटर्न पहचानने की कुंजी है।
Question 81:
In the following sequence of diagrams, which number will occupy the blank space?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) 76
The rule is —
Middle number = Sum of the two bottom numbers.
Top number = 4 × Middle number.
Middle number = Sum of the two bottom numbers.
Top number = 4 × Middle number.
Checking each figure:
(3 + 4) = 7 → 4 × 7 = 28
(5 + 6) = 11 → 4 × 11 = 44
(7 + 8) = 15 → 4 × 15 = 60
(9 + 10) = 19 → 4 × 19 = 76
(3 + 4) = 7 → 4 × 7 = 28
(5 + 6) = 11 → 4 × 11 = 44
(7 + 8) = 15 → 4 × 15 = 60
(9 + 10) = 19 → 4 × 19 = 76
Hence, the missing number is 76.
Memory Tip: If numbers in diagrams rise linearly, check for multiplication or summation patterns like “Top = Multiplier × (Sum of base numbers)”.
Question 82:
The number of parallelograms in the given figure are:
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) 12
The figure is a six-pointed star (two overlapping equilateral triangles). The intersecting lines form a central hexagon with multiple small parallelograms inside.
Counting step-by-step:
• 6 small parallelograms appear in the central hexagon region.
• 3 medium-sized parallelograms are formed by combining two adjacent small ones.
• 3 large parallelograms are formed by combining four small ones.
Total = 6 + 3 + 3 = 12.
• 6 small parallelograms appear in the central hexagon region.
• 3 medium-sized parallelograms are formed by combining two adjacent small ones.
• 3 large parallelograms are formed by combining four small ones.
Total = 6 + 3 + 3 = 12.
Memory Tip: In composite figures, count shapes by size tiers: smallest units first, then combinations of 2 units, then 4 units, etc., ensuring you follow a consistent orientation each time to avoid double counting.
Question 83:
Complete the given series.
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ….
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ….
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) 75
Rule alternates: multiply by 2 and add/subtract 1.
2×2+1 = 5
5×2−1 = 9
9×2+1 = 19
19×2−1 = 37
37×2+1 = 75
2×2+1 = 5
5×2−1 = 9
9×2+1 = 19
19×2−1 = 37
37×2+1 = 75
Memory Tip: For alternating patterns, check (×2 ± 1), (×3 ± 1), or (+n, ×m) cycles.
Question 84:
Find the next term in the following series:
ABC, BCE, CEG, DGK, EKM, ?
ABC, BCE, CEG, DGK, EKM, ?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (C) FMO
• First letters: A, B, C, D, E → next F (+1 each).
• Second letter repeats the last letter of the previous term: ABC → BCE (C repeats), BCE → CEG (E repeats) … so next second letter is M (from EKM).
• Third letters: C, E, G, K, M with jumps +2, +2, +4, +2 → next O (+2).
• Second letter repeats the last letter of the previous term: ABC → BCE (C repeats), BCE → CEG (E repeats) … so next second letter is M (from EKM).
• Third letters: C, E, G, K, M with jumps +2, +2, +4, +2 → next O (+2).
Thus, the next term is FMO.
Memory Tip: In 3-letter series, check each position independently; sometimes the 2nd letter copies the previous term’s 3rd.
Question 85:
Which group of letters will come next in the series?
LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ?
LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ?
Show Answer and Explanation
Answer: (A) PHV
Check columns separately (A=1, …, Z=26):
• 1st letters: L(12), M(13), N(14), O(15) → next P(16) (+1).
• 2nd letters: X(24), T(20), P(16), L(12) → next H(8) (−4 each step).
• 3rd letters: F(6), J(10), N(14), R(18) → next V(22) (+4 each step).
• 1st letters: L(12), M(13), N(14), O(15) → next P(16) (+1).
• 2nd letters: X(24), T(20), P(16), L(12) → next H(8) (−4 each step).
• 3rd letters: F(6), J(10), N(14), R(18) → next V(22) (+4 each step).
Hence, next group is PHV.
Memory Tip: Letter-triplet series often use fixed-step arithmetic progressions per column.
Part-E: General Knowledge (Questions 86–120)
Question 86: What is Siachen?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Glacier – Strategic area
Siachen is a glacier located in the eastern Karakoram range of the Himalayas.
It is the world’s highest battlefield, controlled by India, and has great strategic importance.
Question 87: Which of the following was the achievement of Lord William Bentinck as Governor General?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Suppression of Thuggi
Lord William Bentinck (1828–1835) is known for suppressing the practice of Thuggi and for social reforms such as banning Sati and promoting education.
Question 92: On which of the following date were Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru executed?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 23 March 1931
Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru were hanged on 23 March 1931 in Lahore (Lahore Conspiracy Case). This day is observed as Shaheed Diwas (Martyrs’ Day).
Question 93: Match the following in the context of Right to Freedom (Article 19):
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) (a-ii) (b-iv) (c-i) (d-iii)
Article 19(1)(a): freedom of speech and expression; 19(1)(b): assemble peaceably; 19(1)(c): form associations; 19(1)(d): move freely throughout India.
Question 94: Which gas is mostly found in the atmosphere?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Nitrogen
Nitrogen constitutes about 78% of Earth’s atmosphere, making it the most abundant gas.
Question 95: In which river do we find dolphins in India?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Ganga
The Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is India’s national aquatic animal and is mainly found in the Ganga and Brahmaputra river systems.
Question 96: Which city was the capital of Magadh Mahajanapada in the 6th century B.C.?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Rajgriha
Rajgriha (modern Rajgir) was the early capital of Magadh before Pataliputra.
Question 97: Which riverine island of India is now a district?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Majuli – Assam
Majuli, located in the Brahmaputra in Assam, is the world’s largest river island and has been declared a district.
Question 98: Which is the southernmost state of India?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu is the southernmost state (Andaman & Nicobar Islands is a Union Territory).
Question 99: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer.
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) (a-iii), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-ii)
• Borosilicate glass → heat-resistant glass (labware/cookware).
• Glass wool → insulating material (ovens, buildings).
• Laminated glass → bullet-proof/safety glass.
• Crookes glass → cuts UV rays to protect eyes.
• Glass wool → insulating material (ovens, buildings).
• Laminated glass → bullet-proof/safety glass.
• Crookes glass → cuts UV rays to protect eyes.
Question 100: What was India’s agricultural growth rate in 2016–17 (CSO)?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) 4.1 percent
According to CSO, agriculture grew at about 4.1% in 2016–17 owing to a good monsoon and higher output.
Question 101: If the Speaker and Deputy Speaker’s offices are vacant, who presides over Lok Sabha?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) A member appointed by the President
Under Article 95(1), when both posts are vacant, a member of the House is appointed by the President to perform the Speaker’s duties (often called Speaker pro tem).
Question 102: The President nominates 12 members to Rajya Sabha with special knowledge/experience in which fields (Article 80)?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Art and Social Service
Article 80(3): persons distinguished in literature, science, art, or social service.
Question 103: Who presents Demands for Grants in the State Legislative Assembly?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Finance Minister
The State Finance Minister places the Demands for Grants and the Budget before the Assembly.
Question 104: For Presidential election qualifications, which is unmatched?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) He is not in the office of profit
Not holding an office of profit is a disqualification condition, not an eligibility description—hence unmatched.
Question 105: Which is correctly stated?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) North Pole – 90° N Latitude
The North Pole lies at 90° N; the other statements are incorrect.
Question 106: Which one is not a good source of Calcium?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Rice
Rice has negligible calcium compared with calcium-rich foods like Ragi and Milk.
Question 107: Which year is the base year for GDP at constant prices (India)?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 2011–12
India uses 2011–12 as the base year for constant-price GDP.
Question 108: Which river is not correctly matched?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Mississippi – Australia
The Mississippi is in the USA, not in Australia.
Question 109: Who was not charged in the Red Fort Trial (INA)?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Captain Mohan Singh
The 1945–46 trial involved P.K. Sehgal, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon, and Shah Nawaz Khan. Mohan Singh, who helped found the INA, was not an accused in that trial.
Question 110: The blood glucose level is commonly expressed as:
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) milligram per decilitre (mg/dL)
Normal fasting blood sugar ~70–100 mg/dL.
Question 111: What is not correct?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Lok Sabha member can take oath before the Vice-President
Members take oath before the President’s appointee (Protem Speaker) or the Speaker—not before the Vice-President.
Question 112: What was India’s population density in Census 2011?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) 382 per sq. km.
As per Census 2011, India’s density was 382 persons per sq. km. (up from 325 in 2001).
Question 113: Per Capita Income is related to:
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Per Capita Net National Income
Per Capita Income = Net National Income ÷ Total Population.
Question 114: Which is not included in Economic Development?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) None of the above
All listed sectors are components of economic development.
Question 115: In which year was the Treaty of Purandar signed between Shivaji and Raja Jai Singh?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 1665 A.D.
Signed in 1665 between Shivaji Maharaj and Raja Jai Singh of Amber under the Mughal empire.
Question 116: Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer.
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) (a–iii), (b–i), (c–iv), (d–ii)
Tachometer – rotation speed; Pyrometer – high temperature; Voltmeter – potential difference; Voltameter – electrolysis.
Question 117: Who can participate in State Legislature proceedings even if not a member?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) (i) and (iii)
Ministers and the Advocate General (of the State) may participate (but cannot vote unless members).
Question 118: Which bank does not grant loans to the public?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Reserve Bank of India
RBI is the central bank; it regulates currency and monetary policy and supervises banks, but does not lend directly to the public.
Question 119: Which of the following is a non-metal liquid?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Bromine
Bromine (Br₂) is the only non-metallic element that is liquid at room temperature (~25°C). Mercury is a metal.
Question 120: A stone dropped from a roof takes 4 seconds to reach the ground. Find the height of the building.
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) 78.4 m
Given: t = 4 s, g = 9.8 m/s², u = 0 | Formula: s = (1/2) g t²
Substituting: s = 0.5 × 9.8 × 4² = 0.5 × 9.8 × 16 = 78.4 m.Part-E1: Current affairs (Questions 121–150)
Q.121. Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP) is:
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Proposed trade agreement between European Union and USA
TTIP was a proposed EU–US free trade agreement aimed at reducing tariffs and aligning regulations to boost transatlantic trade and growth.
Q.122. In 2017, the Indian Science Congress was organized in which place?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Tirupati
The 104th Indian Science Congress (Jan 2017) was hosted by Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati, and inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India.
Q.123. Match the following regarding “Heart of Asia” Ministerial Conferences:
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
1st (2011) – Istanbul; 4th (2014) – Beijing; 5th (2015) – Islamabad; 6th (2016) – Amritsar. The HOA–Istanbul Process promotes peace and development for Afghanistan and the region.
Q.124. Motor Vehicle Agreement (MVA) under BBIN initiative has been ratified in the parliament of which group of countries?
Show Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) India, Nepal and Bangladesh only
The BBIN MVA aimed at seamless road connectivity among Bangladesh, Bhutan, India and Nepal. Bhutan did not ratify it (environmental concerns), while India, Nepal, and Bangladesh did.
Q.125. Which of the following is not true about the “Digital Army” initiative?
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Correct Answer: (A) It plans to provide digital computer to 10 lakh students
The initiative focused on creating a volunteer “digital army” to promote electronic payments post-demonetization, not distributing computers.
Q.126. Which of the following is correct about the 9th BRICS Summit?
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Correct Answer: (A) It was held in Xiamen in September 2017
The 9th BRICS Summit took place in Xiamen, China (3–5 Sept 2017), themed “Stronger Partnership for a Brighter Future.”
Q.127. Where was the first Indian Institute of Skills unveiled?
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Correct Answer: (A) Kanpur
The first IIS was launched in Kanpur (Dec 2016) in collaboration with ITE Singapore, under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.
Q.128. Who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2016?
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Correct Answer: (B) Bob Dylan
Awarded “for having created new poetic expressions within the great American song tradition.”
Q.129. In the 63rd National Film Awards, who received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award?
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Correct Answer: (C) Manoj Kumar
Veteran actor Manoj Kumar received India’s highest cinema honor at the 63rd National Film Awards (2016).
Q.130. “Recently India set a world record in launching satellites.” Which statement is not true?
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Correct Answer: (D)
On 15 Feb 2017, PSLV-C37 launched 104 satellites—1 Cartosat-2 series + 103 foreign co-passengers. Most were foreign, so (D) is incorrect.
Q.131. Which programme is monitored using the GARV-II mobile app?
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Correct Answer: (C) Electrification Programme
GARV-II (Grameen Vidyutikaran) dashboards/app track rural electrification and household connectivity.
Q.132. During Feb–Mar 2017, assembly elections were announced in how many states?
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Correct Answer: (C) 05
Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Goa, Uttarakhand, and Manipur.
Q.133. Which country left the Commonwealth a few months back (in 2016)?
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Correct Answer: (B) Maldives
Maldives withdrew from the Commonwealth in Oct 2016 (rejoined in 2020).
Q.134. Who is associated with SpaceX?
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Correct Answer: (B) Elon Musk
Elon Musk founded SpaceX in 2002 to lower launch costs and enable Mars exploration.
Q.135. Which of the following is related to INS Chennai?
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Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
INS Chennai is a Project 15A (Kolkata-class) destroyer with BrahMos (S-S) and Barak-8 (S-A) missiles.
Q.136. Who received Pt. Ravishankar Shukla Samman of this state in 2016?
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Correct Answer: (B) Vinod Kumar Shukl
The noted Hindi novelist-poet Vinod Kumar Shukl was honored with the state’s highest literary award in 2016.
Q.137. A dam on the Hasdo River at Bango in this state has been named after whom?
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Correct Answer: (B) Minimata
The Minimata Bango Dam (Korba, Chhattisgarh) commemorates Smt. Minimata Agam Dass Guru, a pioneer social reformer.
Q.138. Who was the pioneer of Romanticism in this state’s literature?
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Correct Answer: (A) Padumlal Punnalal Bakshi
Padumlal Punnalal Bakshi (1894–1971) is regarded as the pioneer of Romanticism (Chhayavaad) in Chhattisgarh’s Hindi literature.
Q.139. In ancient times, who was the founder of the Nala dynasty in this state?
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Correct Answer: (A) Varaharaj
The Nala dynasty (5th–6th century CE) ruled parts of present Chhattisgarh–Odisha; its early ruler is cited as Varaharaja (Varahadeva) in inscriptions.
Q.140. ‘Ghotul’ has been a meeting point of young boys and girls of which tribe of this state?
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Correct Answer: (D) Muria
Ghotul is a traditional youth dormitory and cultural school of the Muria (a Gond subgroup) in Bastar, Chhattisgarh.
Q.141. Which folk-theatre of this state is largely inspired by the ‘Rasleela’ of U.P.?
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Correct Answer: (B) Rahas
Rahas blends devotional narratives of Krishna with music and dance, drawing from Rasleela traditions.
Q.142. Which Kalchuri ruler of Ratanpur assumed the title “Sakkalasoladhhipati”?
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Correct Answer: (C) Ratnadeva II
Ratnadeva II (12th century CE) styled himself “Lord of eighteen forts” after consolidating and defending the realm.
Q.143. Where did tribals protest forced labour by cutting trees in reserved forest in Jan 1922?
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Correct Answer: (D) Paralakot
The Parlakot movement in Bastar (Jan 1922) opposed begar and repressive forest laws, foreshadowing wider tribal resistance.
Q.144. Which folk-song of this state is regarded as a ‘love-song’?
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Correct Answer: (B) Dadariya
Dadariya is a duet-based love-song genre expressing romance and rustic life in Chhattisgarh.
Q.145. On which river is Chitrakot Fall (near Jagdalpur) located?
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Correct Answer: (B) Indravati
The “Niagara of India” forms on the Indravati River, a Godavari tributary.
Q.146. Which mineral has the largest deposits in this state?
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Correct Answer: (A) Coal
Chhattisgarh holds around a fifth of India’s coal reserves (Korba, Raigarh, Surguja, etc.).
Q.147. When were feudatory principalities of this state merged into the Indian Union?
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Correct Answer: (D) January 1948
Post-Independence, the princely states of the region (e.g., Bastar, Kanker) acceded during Jan 1948.
Q.148. Which woman shuttler of this state won bronze at the 81st National Senior Badminton Championship (Patna, 2017)?
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Correct Answer: (C) Akarshi Kashyap
Akarshi Kashyap (from Durg, Chhattisgarh) clinched bronze and later rose as a top Indian prospect.
Q.149. Which Industrial Development Centre is established near Bilaspur in this state?
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Correct Answer: (A) Sirgitti
Sirgitti Industrial Area (near Bilaspur) hosts engineering, steel-fab, and cement-based units under CSIDC.
Q.150. Which was an important work of Captain Agnew as British Superintendent of this state?
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Correct Answer: (C) Suppression of Thuggi
Captain Agnew is noted for curbing Thuggee and strengthening law enforcement in the region in the early 19th century.